A number of publicly traded firms pay no dividends yet investors are willing to buy shares in these firms. How is this possible? Does this violate our basic principle of stock valuation? Explain

Our basic principle of stock valuation is that the value of a share of stock is simply equal to the present value of all of the expected dividends on the stock. According to the dividend growth model, an asset that has no expected cash flows has a value of zero, so if investors are willing to purchase shares of stock in firms that pay no dividends, they evidently expect that the firms will begin paying dividends at some point in the future.