Asked by Jenny Flores on Jun 03, 2024
Verified
A 62-year-old man states that his physician told him that he has an "inguinal hernia." He asks the nurse to explain what a hernia is. Which response by the nurse is best?
A) "Don't worry, most men your age develop hernias."
B) "A hernia is often the result of a prenatal growth abnormality."
C) "You should talk to your physician since he or she made the initial diagnosis."
D) "A hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles."
Inguinal Hernia
A condition where soft tissue protrudes through a weak point in the abdominal muscles near the groin.
Abdominal Muscles
A group of muscles in the abdomen involved in the movement and support of the torso and important for posture and respiratory functions.
Prenatal
Relating to the period or development before birth; during pregnancy.
- Provide an account of the standard diseases and conditions affecting the male genital system, noting their characteristic signs and symptoms.
- Educate patients on the prevention, detection, and management of common genitourinary disorders.
Verified Answer
MA
Malka AronovJun 10, 2024
Final Answer :
D
Explanation :
A hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the musculature of the abdominal wall. It is not a result of a prenatal growth abnormality. Although the patient may need to talk to the physician who diagnosed the hernia, the nurse should still answer his question and should not tell him not to worry, but acknowledge his concerns. A hernia is not a result of a prenatal growth abnormality. The nurse should explain to him that a hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the musculature of the abdominal wall.
Learning Objectives
- Provide an account of the standard diseases and conditions affecting the male genital system, noting their characteristic signs and symptoms.
- Educate patients on the prevention, detection, and management of common genitourinary disorders.
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